Halala without a condition

Question

A certain man gave his wife three talaqs; after that, halala was carried out in the manner current nowadays and talaq was given; after the ‘idda the first husband married her. Is such a nikah valid or not? And what is the status of the one who performs the halala?

Answer

When, after three talaqs, the major (mughallaza) prohibition has come about and separation has taken place, and the ‘idda has passed, and then someone, thinking in his heart, “This poor woman’s home has been ruined; how good it would be if her home were settled again and her distress removed,” married this woman, then after intercourse gave her talaq, and on the completion of…

Source: Fatawa Mahmudiyya

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