Consummation is a condition in halala

Question

A nikah for halala took place, and then the talaq was taken by force, so that up to that time intercourse with the second husband had not occurred. In such a case, is the halala valid or not? May the woman enter into nikah with her first husband or not?

Answer

By this she has not become lawful for the first husband — rather, she has remained forbidden (haram): her nikah with the first husband cannot take place.

Source: Fatawa Mahmudiyya

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